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As Per Your Agreement With

considering that there would be another one depending on its importance. We use “as per” to refer to something like “after our previous discussion” or “according to the rules of the game.” Again, it seems ridiculous to use it to refer to your knowledge. In English, we use `after… To quote someone else. To self-quote is clearly absurd, unless you cite a document you have published or something you have written formally. Quoting your opinion or knowledge makes no sense. The show will arrive first before December, in accordance with our agreement. His premise of openness is rhetorically impressive, but he tends to feel that we are securing our agreement by agreeing nervously. It goes without saying that any statement you make is “to your knowledge” or “to your knowledge” unless otherwise stated. What else could be the case? “As part of our agreement, we have made progress in opening our bases, especially in Incirlik,” he said. In 2005, Bougainville voters elected their own parliament, according to an agreement reached in 2003.

Palestinian leaders are rightly frustrated by Israel`s refusal to release Palestinian prisoners under a previous agreement, and the Palestinians see their applications for membership in international conventions and treaties as a chance to “improve the conditions of competition”. Per means after, so you can indeed say “after our agreement, you must… ». The one as in your first sentence is pleonastic, and sounds affected: I would avoid it. The very common “as usual” is a humorous prolixity. “In addition to our dual registration contract with Whitehaven, we will try to take advantage of our agreement with London to allow Widnes players to develop their careers.” But every week, Gus seemed to forget our agreement when we started our migration. “As per” is often used in legal discussions, for example. B for contracts. For example, “according to Section 4, Section 8…” and this has a different meaning than “According to Article 4, Section 8…” In accordance with Article 4, paragraph 8, I must present a medical certificate to be on sick leave. A) “Manchester United won the Premier League in 2012” Although I understand both written and oral communication, I find the first rather strange. I would never use it, and strongly prefer the second, “after.” Why is it so strange? I looked a little in the OED using “as per” (odd in itself for the combination of two prepositions). It was first used in 1869 as a form of “slang” “as usual” of itself.

But I came across an entry that has a similar meaning to what they are looking for here: “by.” “After” is a normal register, while “as per” commercial correspondence as stated in: this was used in 1446 and only in 1989. The difference here, I believe, has been raised: this meaning implies a certain obligation or a certain requirement. No other entry seems to be approaching, and this corresponds to my own mental lexicon for “per” and “as per.” It doesn`t fit that situation. I understand that by an older and more formal version after, it is therefore very common to meet in some very serious and formal written languages, while after normal use has become. Since I tried Ludwig in 2017, I have constantly edited and translated it. Since then, I`ve been offering it to my translators at ProSciEditing. Both are bad English and are counternatural and erroneous uses of English, as they are superfluous and do not add additional or necessary information to the sentence. In general, this kind of error is common among English Indian lopotists. I believe, ironically, that it is assumed that it adds a touch of intelligence to a statement.

In fact, to a native speaker, it adds a touch of pretension that can be used to undermine the speaker in the eyes of the listener. Discoverlia COVID-19Ludwig Initiative Against COVID-19 Ludwig is the first sentence search engine that helps you write better English by giving you contextualized examples from reliable sources.

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